Out of all the lies about Stalin I have seen, few (if any) are as insufficiently addressed as "Stalin forced Socialism on the Eastern Bloc". There already exists plenty of evidence for each individual country, proving that it was not the case. Finland remaining capitalist also serves this case.
But the question still remains: how did all the countries in Europe, barring Finland, just happen to choose an identical ideology to the superpower that "got to them"? Its comically unlikely to occur naturally, if foreign influence is not at play.
Using evidence which includes declassified CIA documents, I intend to prove that some merit exists in this argument. One half of Europe had a certain economic mode forced on it, against the will of its citizens...
Europe Wanted Stalin!
Chapter one: The West
Germany:
In the course of rehabilitating Nazi propaganda, NATO apologists created all kinds of slander against the Red Army regarding the treatment of the population.
One CIA document, dated 29 June 1950, thinks differently. According to it, while the British employed "colonial methods", the USA committed many "Ireparable psychological blunders" (CIA's bold text, not mine!), and the French satisfied "only some intellectual connoisseurs", The Soviets had a "heart for German cultural problems". It admitted the Soviets were the only ones who respected the German population. But it doesn't end here!
The last lines of the document are as follows:
"This German-Soviet rapprochement will become a fact, even in the face of the Western Occupation Forces. Germany is marching straight ahead into the camp of the Eastern bloc."
This is why we say: Under Stalin there was no wall!
France and Italy
I am placing both of these nations together because the CIA did. "PSB D-14C", the "Psychological operations plan"(sic) the CIA used, included actions against both. Due to the strong presence of Communism in both of these states, a plan was devised to ahem democratise French and Italian democracy. By depriving the French and Italians of democracy and admitting manipulations. For example, a 40 page document in the early 50s admitted the results of Italian and French elections to be "Disappointing". They stated: "While the electoral mechanisms had been manipulated so as greatly to reduce Comunist representation in the French Chamber and Italian municipalities, nonehteless the Communist parties in 1951 had shown a voting strength, roughly equal, in the case of Italy [...] and, in the case of France, reduced only by about 9 per cent".
Another document clarified the reason for this manipulation to begin with, Stating: "It was felt therefore that considerations should be given to new techniques to deprive the French and Italian Communists of their power, recognizing that these parties constituted a continuing threat to democratic government and even to the security of the NATO forces in Western Europe"
Another document in March 5, 1953 reaffirmed a policy in a document from September 15, 1951. "It should be a major point of American and of NATO policy to cripple these Communist parties"
Some of the ways this would be achieved in include vote manipulation: 
And deportations and harassment of French communists:
Anonther Document stated quite frankly that "the working class continues largely to vote for the Communist party" in France. This is despite all the vote manipulation and psychological warfare conducted.
And despite everything, the French Communist party constituted one sixth of the assembly, being the largest party in France. In 1953 a document titled "The Deteriorating Position of France" explored the onset of a revolutionary situation.
Now, I will ask again: how did all the countries in Europe, barring Finland, just happen to choose an identical ideology to the superpower that "got to them"?
